Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 06:05
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why is the US going after Canada after all? What is the reason for all this hostility?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Overthinking is killing me day-by-day. What should I do?
There's no rule.